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Modulation question


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#1 hammer action

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Posted 13 October 2020 - 20:34

Why would a piece of music that begins in the key of F Major modulate halfway through to the key of G Major but have naturals in front of all the F sharps?  Wouldn't it make more sense to modulate to C Major rather than G? 


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#2 BadStrad

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Posted 13 October 2020 - 20:53

Could you add more detail? Maybe a link to an IMSLP copy of the music or to a cloud/Photosharing image. Perhaps there is a cadence or something else pointing to the answer. Even the title might help someone recognise the piece.
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#3 Cyrilla

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Posted 13 October 2020 - 23:01

Could it be Mixolydian??


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#4 Hildegard

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Posted 14 October 2020 - 07:57

Why would a piece of music that begins in the key of F Major modulate halfway through to the key of G Major but have naturals in front of all the F sharps?  Wouldn't it make more sense to modulate to C Major rather than G? 

 

What evidence is there that it has modulated to G major? A change of key signature is not necessarily an indication of a modulation - a perfect cadence in the new key is the deciding factor. So, normally a modulation to G major is created by a V7-I cadence in G: V7 includes an F#, so no F# means no modulation. Otherwise, as BadStrad says, we need to see the context.


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#5 HelenVJ

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Posted 14 October 2020 - 09:24

Which piece are you thinking of, hammer action? Generally, the feel of the tonal centre is more important than accidentals ( or lack of). And, as Cyrilla suggests, it could be modal. 


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